If John 1:1 is supposed to be translated "...and the Word was A God" because there is no definite article before θεος, the why doesn't the NWT translate Philippians 2:6 as saying "...who, although he was existing in A God’s form, gave no consideration to a seizure, namely, that he should be equal to A God" since there is no definite article before θεος in either instance of the word in THAT verse?
28 July 2009
Quick Question #3
Quick Question for Jehovah's Witnesses:
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